1 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

3 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

X only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

4 Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

vty
aux
console
X enable secret
enable password

5 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

X TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
X TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
X TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6 Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
X 100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
X 1000 Base LX

7 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
X 192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254

8 Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
X 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9 Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

X address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server

10 Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
X issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

11 Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

X 172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
X 172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
X 172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27

12 What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
X A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
X All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
X After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13 In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash
X NVRAM
RAM
ROM

14 A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

access point
host
hub
X router
switch

15 Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

application
presentation
session
X transport

16 Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3
Router(config-line)# password c13c0
Router(config-line)# login

The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
X The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
X Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

17 Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

Switch-6J>
X Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#

18 Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
X 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192

19 When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
X when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20 When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

connectionless acknowledgements
X upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols

21 A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

console
enable
X enable secret
VTY

22 Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

a FTP client
a telnet client
X a terminal emulation program
a web browser

23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

The data is encrypted.
X The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
X The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24 The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

X service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier

25 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

X A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
X Five collision domains exist.

26 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
X IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18

27 Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

X segment1
segment2
X segment3
X segment4
segment5

28 What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
X heirarchical
X uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
X contains a network portion

29 Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
X The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.

30 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
X The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
X The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.

31 Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
X 198.133.219.25:80

www.cisco.com

C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0

32 During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

two networks routing the packets
X two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame

33 Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)

The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
X The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
X The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34 Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

1
X 3
4
5
7

35 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
X The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36 Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 – rollover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – rollover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

X Connection 1 – straight-through cable
Connection 2 – crossover cable
Connection 3 – straight-through cable

Connection 1 – crossover cable
Connection 2 – straight-through cable
Connection 3 – crossover cable

37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

The host’s default gateway.
The host’s IP address.
X The host’s primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host’s homepage.

38 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
X The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
X The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

39 Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

X 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
X 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
X 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255

40 Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

X physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
X media access control

41 Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

0 to 255
X 0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535

42 As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
X 255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128

43 Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?

X London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4

44 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?

Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
X Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94

45 Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

star
ring
point-to-point
X multiaccess
mesh

46 Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
X subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure

47 Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)

192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
X 192.168.18.49
X 192.168.18.52
X 192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63

48 Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

X The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
X The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
X The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.

49 Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

leaving host A
leaving ATL
X leaving Dallas
leaving NYC

50 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

application
presentation
session
transport
X network

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1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?

*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound

10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.

11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.

14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets

15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?

all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded

18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits

27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.

29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone

30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.

34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1″. What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.

37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication

39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
**network
data link
physical

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.

48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure

50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay

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1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider’s central office.
• The point is located between the customer’s local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
• show interfaces serial 0/0
• show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
• show protocols serial 0/0
• show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 – dial number is looked up
2 – interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 – route to destination is determined
4 – call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
• create subinterfaces
• define the LMI type
• set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
• set the interface DLCI
• set the switch type
• specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
• Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
• Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
• The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
• Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
• frame-relay pvc multipoint
• frame-relay pvc point-to-point
• encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure DHCP and static NAT.
• What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
• circuit-switched
• connection oriented
• OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
• reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

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1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
• hold-down timers
• poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
• time to live
• split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
• Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• low processor overhead
• poison reverse
• routing loops
• split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
• The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
• Boot system commands are not configured.
• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
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8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
• show ip route
• show processes
• show running-config
• show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
• destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
• subnet mask and wildcard mask
• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
• most
• host
• all
• any
• some
• sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
• 3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
• 5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
• 10 collision domains
• 13 collision domains

12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
• 192.168.16.63/27
• 192.168.16.158/27
• 192.168.16.192/27
• 192.168.16.113/30
• 192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
• prevents routing loops on a router
• creates smaller collision domains
• creates smaller broadcast domains
• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
• activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
• EIGRP does not support VLSM.
• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
• local router
• local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
• R3 has the following configuration:
• R3# show running-config
• –some output text omitted–
• interface serial0/0
• bandwidth 128
• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
• The LMI type must always be manually configured.
• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
• show interface bri0/0
• show isdn active
• debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
• establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
• 192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
• 192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
• 192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
• 2) fragment free
• 3) store-and-forward
• 1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
• 1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
• 1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
• Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
• RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
• TCP
• RIP
• CSMA/CD
• Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
• a router with a serial interface
• a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
• an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
• best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
• best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
• SNMP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
• DLCI
• DE
• FECN
• LMI
• Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
• Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show cdp neighbors
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
• router table
• topology table
• DUAL table
• CAM table
• ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
• serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
• 172.16.134.48
• 172.16.134.47
• 172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show version
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
• IP addresses
• subnet masks
• port numbers
• routed protocols
• routing protocols
• interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

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1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol – Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
• initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

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1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
• operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base

11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport

17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

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1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.

2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief

3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening

7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3

9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP

14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer

20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated

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1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP

18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be  established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public  Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being  intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.

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1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?
• blocked in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces
• permitted in and out of all interfaces
• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?
• by destination UDP port
• by protocol type
• by source IP address
• by source UDP port
• by destination IP address

4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20
access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 101 permit ip any any
• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• All traffic is implicitly denied.
• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.
• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.
• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?
• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.
• The network administrator receives an error.
• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10. Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network destined for the Web
• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?
• ISP Fa0/0 outbound
• R2 S0/0/1 inbound
• R3 Fa0/0 inbound
• R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)
• Only named ACLs allow comments.
• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.
• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.
• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.)
• extended ACL
• reflexive ACL
• console logging
• authentication
• Telnet connectivity
• user account with a privilege level of 15

13. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.
• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.
• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from within the
• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network of the company.
• What type of ACL is most appropriate?
• dynamic
• port-based
• reflexive
• time-based

15. Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of EVERYOTHERDAY?
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.
• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.
• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?
• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.
• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.
• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.
• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.
• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.
• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true
• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.
• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.
• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?
• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.
• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.
• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant message.
• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?
• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol
• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination
• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic
• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list

22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which combination of network
• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose two.)
• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.
• The word “any” indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.
• The word “host” corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.
• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.
• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction on S0/0/0 of R1?
• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.
• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.
• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0 interface.

25. Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?
• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.
• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.
• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.
• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1. Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?
• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.
• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.
• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network 172.22.0.0/16.
• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic from any other sources is blocked.

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1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)
• Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a low security risk.
• Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals who  download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.
• Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web server, no further  security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come from it being hacked.
• Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.
• Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the security  policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)
• Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.
• Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.
• Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.
• A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.
• Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?
• reconnaissance
• access
• DoS
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?
• DoS
• DDoS
• virus
• access
• reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
• The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure default security settings.
• Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack in progress without user intervention.
• Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.
• Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.
• Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?
• securing
• monitoring
• testing
• improvement
• reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)
• provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers
• describe how the firewall must be configured
• document the resources to be protected
• identify the security objectives of the organization
• identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
• It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
• It communicates consensus and defines roles.
• It is developed by end users.
• It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.
• It defines how to handle security incidents.
• It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose two.)
• By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.
• DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces of all routers.
• Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all routers in the network.
• The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.
• The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)
• It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.
• It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.
• It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.
• It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.
• It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS software features.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
• The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.
• The authentication method is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP server is not configured correctly.
• The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
• The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.
• The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.
• The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.
• The TFTP server software has not been started.
• There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
• Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
• Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
• Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
• Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
• Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection? (Choose two.)
• ROM monitor
• boot ROM
• Cisco IOS
• direct connection through the console port
• network connection through the Ethernet port
• network connection through the serial port

16. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL 192.168.10.1?
• The password is sent in plain text.
• A Telnet session is established with R1.
• The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.
• The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?
• SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.
• SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.
• SDM should be used for complex router configurations.
• SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?
• Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.
• Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.
• Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.
• Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
• Schedule antivirus scans.
• Schedule antispyware scans .
• Schedule training for all users.
• Schedule operating systems updates.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of security on the router.
• What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are identified on the router?
• SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.
• SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.
• SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the services.
• SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security changes.

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the “ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco” statement in the configuration?
• to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates
• to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic
• to enable SSH encryption of traffic
• to create an IPsec tunnel

22. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
• The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.
• The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.
• The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
• The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.

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