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CCNA 4 – Chapter 3

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service? • Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as 64 kbps. • Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link. • Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider. • Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or adding additional • hardware for leased service. 2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.) • Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery. • It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames. • FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors. • The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors … [Read more...]

CCNA 4 – Chapter 2

1. Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.) • uses only PVCs • is useful for video transfers • has data rates beyond 155 Mbps • cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead • mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection 2. Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.) • Each packet carries an identifier. • Each packet carries full addressing information. • Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet. • Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory. • The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit. 3. A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation? • … [Read more...]

CCNA 4 – Chapter 1 (100%)

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.) • Physical Layer • Data Link Layer • Network Layer • Transport Layer • Presentation Layer • Application Layer 2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.) • ATM switches • core routers • CSU/DSU • Ethernet switches • Frame Relay switches • repeaters 3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network? • core router • access server • Frame Relay switch • ATM switch 4. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure? • Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) • metro Ethernet • Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) • Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) 5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.) • CIR • DLCI • DSLAM • … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Final Exam (A)

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch? • Switch(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0 Switch(config-if)# no shutdown Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254 • Switch(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0 Switch(config-if)# no shutdown Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254 • Switch(config)# interface vlan 10 Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0 Switch(config-if)# no shutdown Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254 • Switch(config)# interface vlan … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 7

1. Which two conditions have favored adoption of 802.11g over 802.11a? (Choose two.) • 802.11a suffers from a shorter range than 802.11g. • The 2.4 GHz frequency band is not as crowded as the 5 GHz band. • 802.11a is more susceptible to RF interference from common commercial items. • 802.11a uses a more expensive modulation technique than 802.11g. • 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b, but 802.11a is not. 2. Which two statements concerning network security are accurate? (Choose two.) • 802.11i uses 3DES for encryption. • Open authentication uses no client or AP verification. • The 802.11i protocol is functionally identical to WPA. • 802.11i incorporates a RADIUS server for enterprise authentication. • A wireless client first associates with an AP and then authenticates for network access. 3. Which installation method will allow connectivity for a new wireless network? • set up WEP on the access point only • set up open access on both the access point … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 6

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.) • This design will not scale easily. • The router merges the VLANs into a single broadcast domain. • This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary. • This design exceeds the maximum number of VLANs that can be attached to a switch. • This design requires the use of the ISL or 802.1q protocol on the links between the switch and the router. • If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router. 2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance? • Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration. • Add a second router to handle the inter-VLAN traffic. • Use a hub to connect the … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 5

1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.) • The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports. • Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity. • All trunking ports are designated and not blocked. • Root switches have all ports set as root ports. • Non-root switches each have only one root port. 2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.) • They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent. • They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address. • Only the root bridge will send out a BID. • They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge. • The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID. 3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 4

1. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches shown in the exhibit. What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.) • Switch2 is in transparent mode. • Switch1 is in client mode. • Switch1 is using VTP version 1 and Switch2 is using VTP version 2. • Switch2 is in server mode. • Switch1 is in a different management domain. • Switch1 has no VLANs. 2. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the output provided, what could be done to fix the problem? • The switches must be interconnected via access link. • Switch SW2 must be configured as a VTP client. • Both switches must be configured as VTP clients. • Both switches must be configured with the same VTP revision number. • The switches must be configured with the same … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 3

1. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true? • 802.1q is Cisco proprietary. • 802.1q frames are mapped to VLANs by MAC address. • 802.1q does NOT require the FCS of the original frame to be recalculated. • 802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports. 2. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.) • VLANs improve network performance by regulating flow control and window size. • VLANs enable switches to route packets to remote networks via VLAN ID filtering. • VLANs reduce network cost by reducing the number of physical ports required on switches. • VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications. • VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms. 3. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.) • VLAN1 should renamed. • VLAN 1 is the … [Read more...]

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2

1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? • The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. • The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data. • The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames. • The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission. 2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link? • No collisions will occur on this link. • Only one of the devices can transmit at a time. • The switch will have priority for transmitting data. • The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur. 3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty? • SW1 drops the frame. • SW1 floods the frame on all ports on … [Read more...]

Links
CCNA 1 2011 CCNA 2 2011 CCNA 3 2011 CCNA 4 2011