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Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
(ccna4u.org)=>192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.146/28
(ccna4u.org)=>192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.129/26
192.168.9.51/26
(ccna4u.org)=>192.168.9.64/26
3
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
(ccna4u.org)=>Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
(ccna4u.org)=>Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.
4
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
(ccna4u.org)=>ring
point-to-point
multi-access
5
Refer to the exhibit. At which OSI layer is serial interface 0/0/1 experiencing problems?
(ccna4u.org)=>Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
6
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
(ccna4u.org)=>The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
(ccna4u.org)=>The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
www.ccna4u.info
7
Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
(ccna4u.org)=>The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19.
The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.
8
What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
(ccna4u.org)=>port number
device physical address
destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier
9
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the provided configuration, which statement is true?
(ccna4u.org)=>The IP address of host A is properly assigned to the local NIC.
Host A can send packets to any host on the local network only.
Host A can send packets to any host on the local and remote network.
Host A can ping successfully the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1.
10
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
(ccna4u.org)=>255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
www.ccna4u.info
11
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
(ccna4u.org)=>The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.
12
A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
(ccna4u.org)=>enable
aux
console
VTY
13
Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the purpose for the IP address that is assigned to VLAN 100?
provides remote switch management
(ccna4u.org)=>identifies the subnet for hosts in VLAN 100
serves as default gateway to hosts in VLAN 100
creates a routing table entry for packets to network 192.168.0.0
14
Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
(ccna4u.org)=>100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
(ccna4u.org)=>1000 Base LX
15
Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
access switch
DHCP server
hub
(ccna4u.org)=>router
16
Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
(ccna4u.org)=>It provides out-of-band console access.
It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.
17
Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
(ccna4u.org)=>172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
(ccna4u.org)=>172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
(ccna4u.org)=>172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27
18
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
(ccna4u.org)=>The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
19
Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login
This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
(ccna4u.org)=>This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
(ccna4u.org)=>This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
www.ccna4u.org
The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about e-mail transmission between computer A and the server?
(ccna4u.org)=>The server will use HTTP to push messages to computer A.
Computer A will connect to the server and retrieve inbound messages by using POP.
The e-mail client on computer A uses SMTP to pull inbound messages from the server and push outbound messages to the server.
A connection is established from computer A to the server on port 21 and the client software uses FTP to transmit messages as discreet files.
21
Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
application layer
presentation layer
session layer
(ccna4u.org)=>transport layer
22
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
console
Ethernet
(ccna4u.org)=>auxiliary
serial
23
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
(ccna4u.org)=>NVRAM
RAM
ROM
24
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
(ccna4u.org)=>It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
It is stored in NVRAM.
It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
25
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
(ccna4u.org)=>198.133.219.25:80
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
26
A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
It uses error control mechanisms.
(ccna4u.org)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple port numbers.
27
Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
(ccna4u.org)=>It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0
28
Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
(ccna4u.org)=>IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
29
A user types the enable command. What task can be performed at the privileged EXEC mode?
Configure the device.
Configure individual interfaces.
Configure individual terminal lines.
(ccna4u.org)=>Issue show and debug commands.
30
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
(ccna4u.org)=>It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
(ccna4u.org)=>After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
(ccna4u.org)=>A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
31
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
(ccna4u.org)=>TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
(ccna4u.org)=>TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
(ccna4u.org)=>TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
32
Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown. Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
(ccna4u.org)=>transport layer
33
Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)
Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
(ccna4u.org)=>Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11.
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully.
(ccna4u.org)=>Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B.
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2.
34
During the encapsulation process of the TCP/IP model, which layer will attach the IP header to the data?
application
transport
(ccna4u.org)=>internet
network access
35
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
(ccna4u.org)=>issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
36
During the encapsulation process, what identifiers are added at the transport layer?
source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
source and destination port numbers
source and destination channel identifiers
37
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
(ccna4u.org)=>rollover cable
serial cable
38
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
(ccna4u.org)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.
39
While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
(ccna4u.org)=>Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#
40
Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
192.168.1.191
192.168.1.101
192.168.1.1
(ccna4u.org)=>192.168.1.254
41
Which option would be a valid router hostname according to Cisco naming convention guidelines?
Rtr1_Bldg201
(ccna4u.org)=>Building_201
Router 1
1st_Floor_Router_409_West_State_Street
42
An administrator has made changes to a device. The changes did not have the desired effect. What can the administrator do to restore the configuration saved in NVRAM?
Issue the erase flash command.
(ccna4u.org)=>Issue the reload command and respond no to the prompt that follows.
Issue the erase start-up config command.
Issue the copy running-config start-up config command.
43
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 – rollover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – rollover cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – rollover cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – rollover cable
(ccna4u.org)=>Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable
44
Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
(ccna4u.org)=>Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
45
Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
(ccna4u.org)=>segment1
segment2
(ccna4u.org)=>segment3
(ccna4u.org)=>segment4
segment5
46
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
(ccna4u.org)=>ring
point-to-point
multi-access
47
Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
PC
switch
(ccna4u.org)=>router interface fa0/0
router interface fa0/1
48
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
(ccna4u.org)=>The source port of the host is 3166.
(ccna4u.org)=>The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.
49
The network administrator wants to configure the port number used by an application on a server to make it accessible by clients. Which range of port numbers would normally be assigned for this application?
0 to 255
(ccna4u.org)=>0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535
50
Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
(ccna4u.org)=>This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
(ccna4u.org)=>The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
(ccna4u.org)=>The assigned address is a private address.
51
Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
an FTP client
a Telnet client
(ccna4u.org)=>a terminal emulation program
a web browser
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Your contribution will help keep this site updated!Final Exam Answer [CCNA 1 - EXPLORATION]
1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
–> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
–> A, B, D, G
3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
–> only computer D
4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
–> enable secret
5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
–> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
–> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
–> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
–> 100 Base-FX
–> 1000 Base LX
7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
–> 192.168.254.1
8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
–> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
–> address translation
10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
–> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
–> 172.16.4.63 /26
–> 172.16.4.191 /26
–> 172.16.4.95 /27
12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
–> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
–> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
–> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
–> NVRAM
14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
–> router
15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
–> transport
16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)
–> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
–> Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.
17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
–> Switch-6J#
18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
–> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
–> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
–> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?
–> enable secret
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
–> a terminal emulation program
23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
–>The connection type is called a VTY session.
–> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.
24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
–> service port number
25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
–> A single broadcast domain is present
–> Five collision domains exist.
26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
–> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
–> segment1
–> segment3
–> segment4
28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
–> uses a flat structure
–> uniquely identifies each host
–> contains a network portion
29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
–> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
–> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
–> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
–> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
–> two applications communicating the data
33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
–> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
–> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.
34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
–> 3
35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
–> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
–> Connection 1 – straight-through cable , Connection 2 – crossover cable , Connection 3 – straight-through cable
37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
–> The host’s primary domain name server.
38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
–> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
–> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
–> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
–> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
–> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
–> physical addressing
–> media access control
41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
–> 0 to 1023
42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
–> 255.255.254.0
43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
–> Athens
44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
–> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
–> star
46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
–> subnet mask incorrectly entered
47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
–> 192.168.18.49
–> 192.168.18.52
–>192.168.18.59
48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
–> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
–> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
–> The prefix of the computer address is /27.
49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
–> leaving Dallas
50. WWhich OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
–> transport layer
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Your contribution will help keep this site updated!1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a ‘Password Required but None Set’ message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0×2100.
The configuration register is set for 0×2101.
The configuration register is set for 0×2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0×2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
• show running-config
show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
• host
all
• any
some
sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
• RIP v1
RIP v2
• IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
–some output text omitted–
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward
1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
• RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
SNMP
• HTTP
TFTP
DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
DLCI
• DE
• FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
• topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
• port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider’s network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol – Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0×64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider’s network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.